Why do digital cables sound different?


I have been talking to a few e-mail buddies and have a question that isn't being satisfactorily answered this far. So...I'm asking the experts on the forum to pitch in. This has probably been asked before but I can't find any references for it. Can someone explain why one DIGITAL cable (coaxial, BNC, etc.) can sound different than another? There are also similar claims for Toslink. In my mind, we're just trying to move bits from one place to another. Doesn't the digital stream get reconstituted and re-clocked on the receiving end anyway? Please enlighten me and maybe send along some URLs for my edification. Thanks, Dan
danielho
What amazes me about the cynics' justifications for not hearing differences in digital cables is, when all is said and done, the same things that made the "all (analog) cables sound the same" debate of several years ago. First of all, not everyone's hearing is as developed or sensitive as that of some. So it is possible that some simply can't and never will be able to hear these differences. More interesting however is how reluctant many are to give music, that which all of these toys are trying to reproduce, the proper respect. Music(sound) is so complex, so beautifully subtle. Is it so difficult to imagine that there are still many aspects of sound as it relates to recorded music that have yet to be properly explained or even identified? Not to me. Why do we assume that there has to be an explanation "now". The very things that make us want to listen to certain music, the emotion, the mystery; how on earth can these things be quantified? They can't be. Not yet anyway.
I understand that, in theory, there shouldn't be a difference. However, in my system there are clear (but sometimes subtle) differences bewteen HAVE Canare Digiflex Gold, Transparent (regular old 75 ohm video cable), generic BNC and the Monarchy (solid teflon core) that I'm using now. It is also easy to distinguish between the BNC and SPDF outputs (this is simply a matter of imedance). The best combination is using the BNC (true 75 ohms with adapter) and the Monarchy. The solid teflon core really does make a difference -- there are white papers available to expalin why this works, contact Monarchy Audio for copies or more information. By the way, this interconnect is not expensive. Under $100 and there really is a significant and very audible difference. This is the only digital interconnect that I noticed a huge improvement with -- something about the solid teflon core actually makes a difference. Go figure.
I don't care what any of the critics say there is a difference. I replaced an audioquest digital pro with an illuminati D60 with Meridian gear years ago and the difference was gigantic for me. How that skinny little wire can make such a difference is unbelievable, I liken it to power cord upgrades from stock - immediate and significant improvement.
I wasn't trying to start a religous war here when I asked the question. I'm just confused. With analogue, it makes sense that if there is an impedence mismatch (among other things) that these factors can change the signal being transmitted. The problem is that with digital and such a short distance to move the bits, unless you have a bad cable (where you get a lot of errors), shouldn't ALL good cables move them the same way and thus represent sound the same way? With all the techie types out there involved in audio, I was thinking that someone would have already taken measurements at the sending and receiving side to see IF the digital stream is the same. Isn't it ONLY if the sreams are different, at the two ends, with various cables that there will be a difference in sound? This is fairly basic, no? There is no magic involved...and if the digital stream at the receiving end is different than at the sending end regardless of how it sounds...it is just wrong! Or am I missing something here and not understanding what's involved??? What I am interested in are the possible reasons that cables COULD sound different. My only guess so far is that a weak signal or interference makes it hard for the receiving end to distinguish what is a 0 and what is a 1... I think this was inferred by Sugarbrie It is also my understanding that the Pros use a different digital signal...and that the voltages are higher (and making the difference between a 0 and 1 more easily discernible?). Can anyone hear differences in using different cables on aes/ebu? Thanks!
I share others' puzzlement here. Differences between coax and AES/EBU are perhaps easier to accept, but when comparing two different brands of coax, what can possibly be going on? In a conversation with a leading DAC designer earlier this week, he agreed there should be no differences as long as the cables are properly designed, which includes hitting the right impendence measurements. And he added that not all cables are designed properly. (There's also the camp that contends that cable length is very important in digital cables due to relections or something.) But increasingly, the DACs do such a good job of handling all of the timing issues that cable differences should be diminishing. I think I'm just repeating what others have said, but here's my new thought: my BS detector will really start ringing if I hear a claim that some brand's digital cables have sonic properties similar to their analog interconnects and speaker cables. E.g., Cardas Lightning has the characteristic Cardas warmth and fullness, Nordost digital cable is ultra fast but lean, etc. To my mind, whatever it is that lends cables their different sonic characteristics (if you believe that), will not lend the same characteristics to digital cable except by pure, unlikely coincidence. -Dan