2. amps-preamps
  3. 147027-10803

Why do some manufacturers reverse preamp polarity in the first place?

My Rogue RP-5 reverses polarity, so I switch the pos / neg at speaker terminals. The manual does not mention this, however, I wrote the company and they the amp does reverse the polarity. 

Now my question is...why? I would say 98% of buyers of this amp do not know to reverse the cable connections. I would say most reviewers did not as well. Yes, I realize, polarity reversal is not noticable in most instances. Especially, since many recordings are all over the place when it comes to polarity (at least that is what I've read).

So the question remains...why...why not just have the amp terminals set up so the buyer can just plug in as normal?
aberyclark

Showing 4 responses by elizabeth

elizabeth
6,726 posts
 
Several answers above as to why some preamp invert polarity.  
With last years big upgrades I can better than ever hear recording polarity. Lucky for me, my main preamp has a polarity switch easy at hand. Also with dipole speakers it is easy to hear a difference. Since reverse polarity the soundstage is larger and behind the speakers, with correct polarity the soundstage is more in front and between the speakers. Plus with correct polarity vocals are clearer. Bass is slightly more defined.  
There is not only correct and reverse. All sorts of angles.. Also some records multi tracked, some instruments one polarity some the other.. some 90 off due to running through gizmos.. One of the reasons plenty of Rock (in particular) recordings you cannot hear any real polarity... since in one recording it is all over the place.
elizabeth
6,726 posts
 
My preamp has a polarity switch and it can be flipped with music playing no problem. No pops or clicks...
Agree reverse phase the music lacks clarity, and yes the bass is messed up a bit.    
As far as the comment that equipment with reversed polarity is 'cheap'. hah hah ha hah  etc. Try purist.. way more appropriate than cheap.
elizabeth
6,726 posts
 
A question about the internal sonic effects in Al's theoretical 'some' preamps. Now if the actual electronics were creating the change. Then it would 'always' be one position which gave the apparent sort of signal. And the other position also would have a specific signal sound.  
So if the differences do not follow the switch, but rather follow the source polarity.. Then the suggested problem almarg discussed does not exist in the preamp in question.                     
If on the other hand it did follow the switch, then yeah your preamp polarity switch is messed up.   
I have several preamps into the main one. And one of them inverts. (Conrad Johnson ACT2) so with care adjusting the controls with  the same signal to several, I can switch the main preamp fro the Threshold FET TEN to the ACT 2. inverting with the selector switch, let alone the Bryston polarity switch. No matter how it is done. the results match.
elizabeth
6,726 posts
 
Seems someone is suddenly showing the spirit of Spiro Agnew?
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