2. amps-preamps
  3. 1082324135

Is my reciever coverting back to digital?

I have a Yamaha dsp-e492, it has no digital inputs, but it does have a sub-out, which sends out 120hz and below from all the inputs, except from the 6 channel discreet inputs. It has dolby pro logic processing available as well. Does this mean that the processor converts all signals into the digital domain, and then back to analog?
I know I shouldn't be using this thing as a stereo pre-amp anyway, but I'm wondering how much I'm really missing out on by not having, say the adcom gfp-750 or a similar ht bypass pre-amp in my system...

set-up:
yamaha dsp-e492 3-channel surround reciever
adcom gfa-2535 4-channel amp
monitor audio bronze b2 fronts and center (junk surrounds and sub)
philips dvd963sa
boldstrummer
kr4's avatar
kr4
3,424 posts
 
If it has no digital inputs, I doubt if it does anything digital. Your sub out is probably the result of analog filters.
kr4's avatar
kr4
3,424 posts
 
Ooops. I assumed the unit was a receiver but it ain't. Just looked at the manual (http://media-server.amazon.com/media/mole/MANUAL000032249.pdf) and I suspect everything is digitized except the passthrough inputs.
boldstrummer OP
21 posts
 
Thanks for the response Kr4. Is there any way to know for sure whether it converts everything even when the effects are off? It doesn't seem to say in the manual either way.
tarsando
578 posts
 
I bet, but do not know, that it is converting to digital and then back again...that's how it gets the prologic surround channels from 2 channel. My nice old, old lexicon processor converts to digital and then back. If and when I can afford it, I want a processor with digital in so that it does everything at once in the digital domain and there is no a/d conversion.
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