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Need help from smart people - biamping

Hi, I know some of you are electrical engineers or just knowledgeable - looking for your input. I'm looking at the option of bi-amping my speakers. One amp on the mid-tweet connection and an identical amp on the bass connection. Speakers are B&W N804s. Question is, if you do this do the two amps react to the loads as one amp would, or is it possible that if the two connections (drivers) have different impedences, the bass might be louder relative to the mid-tweet, or quieter? In other words, if the upper end has impedence of 8 Ohms and the amp puts out 100 w/ch at 8 ohms, and the lower end is at 4 ohms, and the amp 200 w/ch at 4 ohms, will this result in a problem in the resulting aural output than would have been experience with a single amp? Thank you.
jimmy2615
meiwan
399 posts
 
You will be passive bi-amping, which means the signal will still use the speakers internal crossover. No issues with impedance or loudness.

Unless you need the extra power, I doubt you will hear much of difference sound wise, but give it a shot, you never know.
elizabeth
6,726 posts
 
Do not try to biamp unless you know what you are doing.
For the average not into the scene it is way better to just buy one bigger better amp.
Biamping seems easy, but is really hard.
It is a common question among non experienced folks.

On the other hand plenty of people swear by biamping.
My heartfelt recommendation is do NOT do it.
It is a waste of money and time spent for an iffy result.
(at least for the average beginner)
timrhu
2,778 posts
 
I concur with Meiwan's doubt. Tried it with three times with three different amps and never thought there was any real improvement. Different speakers were used also.
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